The eventual fall of the Ottoman Empire Essay Example for Free

The eventual fall of the Ottoman Empire Essay How far did the reforms during the period 1826-39 contribute to the eventual fall of the Ottoman Empire? The Ottoman Empire (1299-1924), founded as a medieval dynasty, collapsed and re-emerged as a modern constitutional state in less than seven centuries. The crucial question is why? What caused so momentous a transformation? There is much historical debate as to the causes for, and underlying factors in the empires collapse. Ive focused my study on the reforms passed during the period 1826-39, for I would consider these central in understanding the nature of the empires transformation. The years between 1826 and 1839 were a key turning point in the empires history and relations with foreign powers. In this period, crucial wars were fought, reforms ratified and institutions dismantled. Sultan Abdulmecid declared in 1839, [my empire] will prove [] that it is worthy of a prominent place in the concert of civilised nations. As Suraiya Farooqhi et al, in their detailed study of the latter centuries of the empires history put it, such events are important for they physically acknowledged, reaffirmed, and maintained the new centralizing/westernizing course of the Ottoman state.i Historians, whose studies are based foremost on European sources e.g. Lord Kinross and Feroz Ahmadii, tend to see the reforms as progressive, and attribute the empires collapse to a failure to industrialise. On the other hand, other historians, e.g. E.Eldemiii and Professor Maksudoglu, as well as Stanford J. Shawiv, all of whom rely more heavily on Ottoman sources, see the reforms as far more degenerate. Maksudoglu suggests Osmanli [Ottoman] sources have been neglected and ignored. v Shaw argues that Ottoman history has been discussed but always from the European perspective, through the light of European prejudice, and largely on the basis of European sources.vi It is due to a neglect of Ottoman sources that many historians have misinterpreted the causes of the empires collapse; there exists an unnatural bias towards the conventional European justification. As Goodwin suggests, foreign historians tend to blame the international forces of capitalism their capital, their force and suggest that the West reduced the empire to a peripheral producer of raw materials.vii Nevertheless, most historians agree that European influence proved to be of ever-increasing significance in determining the empires transformations. Ahmad suggests that ministers from the Sublime Porte visited Europe, in particular France, more frequently and returned home impressed with what they saw and learned.viii In the 1830s, an Ottoman poet wrote: Go to Paris, young sir, if you have any wish; if you have not been to Paris, you have not come into the world.ix Although the poet was probably writing for the purposes of entertainment, not necessarily for historical accuracy, the extract offers insight into not only the opinion of the poet, but his influence on the audiences perception. The likelihood of the sources reliability, although anonymous, is further strengthened when looked at in the context of Eastern, in particular Muslim, society. The oral tradition was, and still is of significant importance. The point made by Ahmad and the poet shows how the Ottoman view of Europe shifted significantly in the period; Europe had something to offer the empire. Ministers visiting Paris understood the basis of European superiority and in turn saw the need to drastically alter their own system. The Janissary purge of 1826 was first of the Sultans drastic alterations. It was impossible to introduce military and administrative reform whilst faced with the staunch opposition of the conservative ulema [Islamic religious authority], supported by the Janissaries. Ahmad agrees; as he puts it, such schemes were impossible to introduce while the conservatives were so strongly entrenched. Backed by the Janissaries, they were sufficiently powerful to depose reformist sultans and execute their grand viziers.x As Mansel points out, the official history of enumerated acts of insubordination by the corps [stretched] back to the reigns of Selim I and Suleyman.xi By combining evidence from these sources, we can see that the abolition of the corps, also known as the the purging of the garden of the empire of savage and useless weeds, or the Blessed Event was inevitable. The abolition removed the final vestiges of conservatism, thus making it possible for foreign governments to influence the Sultan and the Sublime Porte [Ottoman government]. It was the beginning of an era of almost continuous reform, as Mansel put it, it seemed that only the Janissaries had delayed the empires return to the openness of the reign of Fatih and the early sixteenth century.xii The Janissaries created a climate of fear and disorder. The ulema had largely supported the Janissary reign of misrule, preferring conservative anarchy to innovation and reform.xiii By 1826 the Janissaries had managed to alienate the ulema, and even the common citizens were against them. This was partly due to the treatment of the citizens by the Janissaries and also, as Ahmad suggests, because of the Janissarys poor performance in the Greek insurrection of 1821. Mahmud II waited eighteen years to abolish the Janissaries, who had overthrown and executed his predecessor, Selim III. They were becoming a law unto themselves and were now even unable to fight; they were less soldiers, and more private citizens who just so happened to be on the military payroll. My argument is strengthened by R. G. Grant, who agrees that the Janissaries, once so admired, became a weakness through their political intriguing and their conservatism, which obstructed military reform.xiv Although Grant is correct, the Janissaries did obstruct military reform, they helped to defend the empires citizens against the Sultans excesses, as Maksudoglu argues, [after 1826] top officials lived a luxurious and corrupt life, while the government borrowed substantial sums of money from European powers, and inflation reached unprecedented levels. xv As Goodwin suggests it was no longer the Ottoman peasant to whom the sultans had to answer for their extravagance. There were no Janissaries now to growl at the dissipation of the court.xvi In 1875, due to the Sultans lavish spending, the empire declared bankruptcy. There is no doubt that this contributed to its collapse. The ulema, fearing a similar fate [as the Janissaries] offered the government no resistance. As Mansel put it, [the ulema] fearing similar annihilation if they opposed the government, [they] kept silent.xvii The Blessed Event was more revenge, than considered reform. As Cunningham notes, years later a British general watched with his own eyes as the Sultan supervised workmen striking the Janissary bonnets off gravestones in a Pera burial-ground.xviii Goodwin substantiating Cunninghams argument states: Janissary headstones, topped by the cocky turban of the order, were knocked over.xix Claims of acts of vengeance are supported by the eye-witness account of British Dragoman, Bartolomeo Pisani: Every corrner of the town is searched and every Janissary officer that is caught is conducted to the Grand Vizier and by him ordered to death [].xx The 1826 Janissary purge paved the way for further reform; without the Janissaries, the conservatives were powerless, and in a state of disarray. The abolition of the Janissaries impacted significantly upon Ottoman society. Suraiya Farooqhi et al propose that in Constantinople, the destruction of the Janissary corps had economic and social, as well as political implications: in Istanbul [Constantinople] and many other cities, the Janissaries had played a crucial role in the Ottoman urban economy.xxi According to Maksudoglu, many shopkeepers held paid Janissary posts.xxii The Anglo-Turkish Convention (1838) abolished protectionist policies. Charlotte Jirousek, an expert in consumption studies, agrees that the convention formally established a policy of free trade and removed the longstanding protections on domestic manufacturers.xxiii Suraiya Farooqhi et al argue that the 1838 Anglo-Turkish Convention eliminated state monopolies and removed many of the barriers in the way of European merchants.xxiv The convention had a devastating impact on Ottoman manufacturers and craftsmen, Mansel agrees that the convention opened the empire to a flood of British goods and ruined many Ottoman crafts.xxv The destruction of the Janissary corps (1826) and the Anglo-Turkish Convention (1838) further integrated Ottoman and European economies, just as the 1839 Tanzimat decree more closely aligned the Middle Eastern with Western political structures. Mansel argues, it was the Sultans reason and his determination to save his monarchy, which drove him to modernise.xxvi Ahmad suggests that the reformers had become more convinced that the empires penetration by industrial Europe and its absorption into the expanding world market was the only way for the empire to survive and prosper.xxvii Though a valid argument, attempting to achieve absorption into the world market without first addressing pressing domestic social concerns deemed the economic reforms counter-productive. Mansel agrees, as a result of the 1838 treaty, beggars became more common on the streets of the city [Constantinople].xxviii Glenny cites a failure to industrialise as a principle cause behind the empires collapse. Though his argument is understandable, it isnt entirely accurate. There were attempts to industrialise, in so far as to mirror European industrial development. According to Mansel, the phrases English standards and European standards were constantly recurring in official letters. xxix The Armenian Dardian dynasty was central to the Ottoman industrialisation process. Hovhannes Amira Dardian, an international entrepreneur visited England and France at government expense to study the latest industrial techniques and to purchase steam engines. In November 1831, the first Ottoman newspaper, Takvim-i Vekayi (Calendar of Events), or Moniteur Ottoman was printed in both Ottoman and French editions. Disagreement between Glenny and Mansel ought not to be seen as a weakness in my argument since Glenny is focusing specifically on the Ottoman guild system and not on general industrialisation. Between 1826 and 1839 the Ottoman Empire struggled to control key provinces; Kinross describes the empire as continuing to shrink in extent, retaining despite decay its internal organs while losing through disruption its outlying limbs.xxx Though, Maksudoglu argues that European powers decided to end Osmanli suzerainty over Greece.xxxi Disagreement between Kinross and Maksudoglu may be more apparent than real, since Maksudoglu, as he confesses, is founding his assertions primarily on Ottoman sources. European influence proved pivotal in inciting the territories to rise up against Ottoman governance. The War of Independence exposed the weaknesses of the Sultans reforms. As Mansel agrees, the Sultans reforms did not help the Ottoman Empire in its struggle against the Greek revolt.xxxii The War of Greek Independence began 25 March 1821 and is certainly one of the central elements in bringing about the case for reform. The War of Greek Independence, though initially taking the form of a Greek cultural renaissance, was in fact an attempt by the Greeks to actively destabilize the Ottoman Empire; as Glenny suggests: the Greek rebellions of 1821 were not spontaneous reactions to deteriorating social and economic circumstances.xxxiii By June 1827, after six years of war, the Ottomans under the leadership of the commander Reshid Pasha, succeeded in subjugating continental Greece, this ought to have signalled the end of the war, instead occupation of mainland Greece prompted British, French, and Russian intervention; the Russians, in particular, put immense pressure on the Ottomans. Maksudoglu, strengthening the line of argument, argues that the Russians were guilty of inciting the Greeks to revolt.xxxiv The Austrians under Metternich favoured the suppression of the rebellious Greeks. The British, encouraged by the ambassador Sir Stratford Canning, fought the Ottoman government. According to Mansel, in an effort to persuade the Ottoman government to recognise Greece, European ambassadors, who felt physically threatened in Constantinople, left for the island of Poros between December 1827 and June 1829.xxxv On 20 October 1827, the Ottoman fleet was completely obliterated at the Battle of Navarino. The support of British, French and Russian navies for the Greeks insurgents violated the 1827 Treaty of London in which the three great powers had committed themselves to securing an armistice between the Greeks and the Ottomans, without taking part in the hostilities between contending parities.xxxvi The British, as suggested by Glenny, were egged on by the philhellenic sentiments of Sir Stratford Canning.xxxvii Kinross agrees: the great powers, the rival expansionist empires of Austria-Hungary and Russia, intrigued from behind their adjoining frontiers, marking out spheres of influence, stirring up satellites, and preparing to move when the moment was ripe.xxxviii The great powers crucially interfered in the affairs of the Ottoman provinces, destabilising the empire. Agreement between Glenny and Kinross reinforces the argument. In 1832, the Ottoman Army was convincingly defeated in Syria by Mehmet Alis Egyptian army led by his son, Ibrahim Pasha. The Sultans new army made up initially of ex-Janissaries, proved just as ineffective. Kinross describes the Sultans new troops as being not yet a match for so practiced an enemyxxxix. Marshal Marmont, a former marshal of Napoleon I and Charles X proclaimed: they are not troops; they are a reunion of men the character of whose general appearance is a miserable and humiliated air. It is clear that they are aware of their weakness.xl Agreement between Kinross and Marshal Marmont strengthens the argument that the 1826 Janissary purge was, to a large extent, a failure. The Sultan succeeded in getting rid of the Janissaries, but failed to effectively replace them. As Count Helmuth von Moltke, who in 1835 was brought from Prussia to train the army, put it: it was indispensable for him to clear the site before setting up his own building. [] The first part of his great tas k the Sultan carried through with perspicacity and resolution; in the second he failed.xli From the outset, Mehmet Ali was a thorn in the side of the Sublime Porte, as Kinross put it, he was the Sultans menacing vassalxlii. The Sultan was forced to turn to the Ottomans traditional enemies, the Russians. According to Kinross, this was because British Foreign Secretary Lord Palmerston, who at the time was pursuing a policy of retrenchment of his armed forces, rejected his plea for aidxliii. Though on the other hand, Lord Ponsonby is said to have accused the Sultan of throwing his crown into the lap of the Emperor Nicholas and reminded him of the power of the British to stop the Russians and Mehmet Alixliv. In 1840 the British forced Ibrahim Pasha from Syria and bombarded Alexandria. Mehmet Ali pulled his troops out of Crete and Arabia and accepted the hereditary governorship of Egypt. By 1839 the Ottoman Empire had significantly deteriorated. The Tanzimat decrees (1839) were issued in exchange for support in Egypt. As Goodwin argues, in 1839, in return for the powers putting pressure on Mehmet Ali to accept hereditary governorship of Egypt, he issued [] a reformist charter.xlv Kinross describes the reforms beginning in 1839 as nothing less than the transformation of Turkey from a medieval empire, based on the principles of Islam into a modern constitutional state, based equally on the secular principles of the West.xlvi The assertions of both Goodwin and Kinross strengthen my argument; the Tanzimat issued in secular principles, although it was promulgated in order to receive foreign support in Egypt. Western powers used the artificial doctrine of nationalism as a means by which to incite the non-Muslim citizens of the empire to rebel against the Government. As Goodwin put it, nationalism was a pretence.xlvii My argument is strengthened by Maksudogluxlviii, Eccleshall et al, and in part, by Glennyxlix. Kinross adds, inspired by nationalist feelings, they sought to break free of the empire and carve up the country between them.l According to Goodwin, the Philhellenic movement is often accredited with being responsible for revitalising the Greek spirit and alerting the western governments to the suffering of the empires Greek Christians. This argument is both misleading and certainly untrue. The majority of the Philhellenes were more driven by personal greed than by a desire to see Greek independence; all observers, both Greek and non-Greek, exempt Lord Byron from this criticism. Glenny also points out that: Turkish rule over parts of Greece was no longer viable.li The tributes paid to Byron after his death, by both European politicians and literary figures pressured the British government to adopt a more interventionist stance.lii Most historians agree that the preservation of the Ottoman Empire was in the best interests of the great powers. According to the British Foreign Secretary Lord Castlereagh, barbarous as it is; Turkey forms in the system of Europe a necessary partliii. Wellington declared: The Ottoman Empire stands not for the benefit of the Turks but of Christian Europe.liv A Russian secret government committee in 1828 came to the conclusion that the advantages of the preservation of the Ottoman Empire outweigh its disadvantages (since it would probably be replaced by powers under influence of Britain or France).lv In the context of nineteenth century Europe, the preservation of the Ottoman Empire was a necessity for the great powers, but only in the sense that it was essential that the empire didnt come under rival control. The agreement between Castlereagh and Wellington focuses specifically on retaining the balance of power, and not on preserving the empire as a goal in and of itself. In conclusion, the reforms passed in the period 1826-1839 significantly contributed to the empires collapse. Although the Janissary purge, as argued by Ahmad and Mansel, was necessary as they were no longer effective; without them, the Sultan was allowed to accumulate debt unhindered. Debt led to inflation, soaring food prices and general discontent. The ulema, fearing similar treatment [as the Janissaries] were forced to remain silent. The Janissary purge failed to cure the problem of an ineffective army, and merely served to avenge the acts of disorder carried out by the corps. Without the Janissaries, and with the ulema now impotent, there was no defence against harmful reform e.g. the 1838 Anglo-Turkish Convention flooded the empire with British goods and ruined many Ottoman manufacturers, other reforms, though not necessarily harmful, proved nevertheless ineffective. As Kinross points out by Metternich and others [] [they] were cynically dismissed as an essay in window dressing.lvi If it were not for the Janissary Purge, then it is possible that the empire would have been in a better position to defend itself against foreign intervention and the Sultans excesses. i Suraiya Farooqhi, Bruce McGowan, Donald Quartaert and Serket Pamuk An Economic and Social History of the Ottoman Empire Volume II 1600 1914 Cambridge University Press (1994) 2 Feroz Ahmad, The Making of Modern Turkey, Routledge (1993) iii E.Eldem, Pride and Privilege: A History of Ottoman Orders, Medals and Decorations, Istanbul (2004), p35 iv Stanford J. Shaw, History of the Ottoman Empire and Modern Turkey, Cambridge University Press (1991) 5 Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), pxxv vi Stanford J. Shaw, History of the Ottoman Empire and Modern Turkey, Cambridge University Press (1991), pvii vii Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), p238 viii Feroz Ahmad, The Making of Modern Turkey, Routledge (1993), p24 ix Anonymous, quoted in Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p256 10 Feroz Ahmad, The Making of Modern Turkey, Routledge (1993), p24 xi Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p238 xii Ibid p249 13 Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), p.292 14 R.G.Grant, Battle a visual journey through 5,000 years of combat, DK, (2005), pg34 xv Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), p214 xvi Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), p311 xvii Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p274 xviii Allan Cunningham, Anglo-Ottoman Encounters in the Age of Revolution, (1993), p34 xix Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), p298 xx Bartolomeo Pisani, quoted in, Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p238 21 Suraiya Farooqhi, Bruce McGowan, Donald Quartaert and Serket Pamuk An Economic and Social History of the Ottoman Empire Volume II 1600 1914 Cambridge University Press (1994) xxii Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), p209 xxiii Charlotte Jirousek The Transition to Mass Fashion System and Dress in the Later Ottoman Empire p213-230 Donald Quartaert, editor Consumption Studies and the History of the Ottoman Empire xxiv Suraiya Farooqhi, Bruce McGowan, Donald Quartaert and Serket Pamuk An Economic and Social History of the Ottoman Empire Volume II 1600 1914 Cambridge University Press (1994) xxv Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p258 xxvi Ibid, p250 26 Feroz Ahmad, The Making of Modern Turkey, Routledge (1993), p24 xxviii Ibid p258 xxix Ibid p254 xxx Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977), p.440 xxxi Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), p210 xxxii Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p247 xxxiii Misha Glenny, The Balkans 1804-1999 Nationalism, War and the Great Powers, (Granata Books), London (1999) p26 xxxiv Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), p208 xxxv Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p248 xxxvi The Treaty of London (1827), quoted in, Misha Glenny, The Balkans 1804-1999 Nationalism, War and the Great Powers, (Granata Books), London (1999) p34 xxxvii Ibid xxxviii Lord Kinross, Ataturk A biography of Mustafa Kemal, father of modern Turkey, William Morrow and Company, New York, (1978), p8 xxxix Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977), p467 xl Marshal Marmont, quoted in Phillip Mansel, Constantinople City of the Worlds Desire 1453-1924, John Murray (Publishers), (1995), p259 xli Count Helmuth von Moltke, quoted in, Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), p302 xlii Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977), p467 xliii Ibid p468 xliv Phillip E. Moseley, Russian Diplomacy and the opening of the Eastern Question in 1838-1839, Harvard, (1934), p78 xlv Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), pg304 xlvi Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977), p440 xlvii Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998), pg295 xlviii Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999), p207 xlix Robert Eccleshall, Vincent Geoghegan, Richard Jay, Rick Wilford, Political Ideologies, Unwin Hyman, London (1990) l Lord Kinross, Ataturk A biography of Mustafa Kemal, father of modern Turkey, William Morrow and Company, New York, (1978), p8 li Misha Glenny, The Balkans 1804-1999 Nationalism, War and the Great Powers, (Granata Books), London (1999) p35 lii Ibid, Lord Castlereagh liii Ibid p248, The Duke of Wellington liv Ibid lv Ibid lvi Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977), p475 Bibliography Feroz Ahmad, The Making of Modern Turkey, Routledge (1993) Allan Cunningham, Anglo-Ottoman Encounters in the Age of Revolution, Routledge (1993) Robert Eccleshall, Vincent Geoghegan, Richard Jay, Rick Wilford, Political Ideologies, Unwin Hyman, London (1990) E.Eldem, Pride and Privilege: A History of Ottoman Orders, Medals and Decorations, Istanbul (2004) Suraiya Farooqhi, Bruce McGowan, Donald Quartaert and Serket Pamuk An Economic and Social History of the Ottoman Empire Volume II 1600 1914 Cambridge University Press (1994) Misha Glenny, The Balkans 1804-1999 Nationalism, War and the Great Powers, (Granata Books), London (1999) Jason Goodwin, Lords of the Horizons A History of the Ottoman Empire, Chatto Windus, London, (1998) R.G.Grant, Battle a visual journey through 5,000 years of combat, DK, (2005) Halil Inalcik, The Ottoman Empire; The Classical Age 1300-1600, London (1973) Charlotte Jirousek The Transition to Mass Fashion System and Dress in the Later Ottoman Empire Donald Quartaert, editor Consumption Studies and the History of the Ottoman Empire State University of New York Press (2000) Lord Kinross, Ataturk A biography of Mustafa Kemal, father of modern Turkey, William Morrow and Company, New York, (1978) Lord Kinross, The Ottoman Centuries: The Rise and Fall of the Turkish Empire, Morrow Quill Paperbacks, New York, (1977) Mehmet Maksudoglu, Osmanli History 1289-1922, International Islamic University, Malaysia (1999) Phillip E. Moseley, Russian Diplomacy and the opening of the Eastern Question in 1838-1839, Harvard, (1934) Stanford J. Shaw, History of the Ottoman Empire and Modern Turkey, Cambridge University Press (1991)

Communication Challenges to Modern Day Business Essay Example for Free

Communication Challenges to Modern Day Business Essay Communication is defined as the process of transferring information and meaning between senders and receivers, using one or more written, oral, visual or electronic channels. Simply put, communication is the exchange of information between people. It is important to get feedback from your audience and vice versa for the process of communication to take place effectively. The feedback can be either positive or negative. It is any communication used in an organization with an intention to promote a product, improve service or with the intention to make a sale. This type of communication also occurs within the organization between the management and employees. It has purpose and a lot of attention is given to the details. Business communication has undergone a lot of transformation as a result of the growth of information technology that has changed the whole concept of communication. In the past, businesses had a model of communication that left very little room for interaction and conversation with the receiver of the message. Currently the model that works and is now used by most organisations is one that gives room to both conversation and interaction with the receivers. Communication is very vital in any organization. Like blood in our bodies, it is the channel that gives life to the organisation and without it, organisations would not be functional. Effective communication plays a significant role in the success of the business, as communication works to send information, control behavior and motivate workers. Today there are many more ways to communicate than there were just a few years ago and access to communication devices is almost universal in most businesses. Good communication means the intended message that is send is received by a group of audience without any distortions in meaning. This definition applies to not only personal communication among friends or relatives, but to business situations where you may be communicating with a co-worker one-on-one or in a meeting with several or more people. The key here is clarity Communication is also almost instantaneous. Good business communication is simple and easily understood, a rule often overlooked by managers and team members. This is especially important when preparing a document, speech or presentation that is a game-changer for the company. Simple and concise language wins over language that is obtuse and hard to understand. Business communication defines most organizations, resulting in effective marketing campaigns, productive interpersonal relationships among co-workers and successful customer service resolutions. Since audiences demand different kinds of communications in different situations and settings, effective business communication professionals understand how to tailor messages for maximum results. Several communication challenges exist within day-to-day business operations, especially with technology. Technology benefits organizational communication by lifting communication restrictions caused by time and distance. At the same time, the removal of time and distance as communication factors has led to the challenges of information overload and constant accessibility. The issue of constant accessibility has led to blurring of the lines between personal and professional lives. There are several barriers: Emotion serves as an obstacle to effective communication, as emotion can interfere with making rational decisions. Differences in culture can be a communication challenge for international businesses. Not understanding the language and customs of other cultures can lead to poor sales and public relation disasters. There are a number of recognised barriers in the modern day communication, many of which go unnoticed, that can and do effect the standards of communication a person feels comfortable with. Physical barriers are often down to the nature of the environment in which communication may take place but are not always interpreted by the recipient in the correct manor. For example an office door being closed could signify to a co-worker that someone does not want to be bothered, or is possibly in a bad mood, whereas the occupant of the office could have possibly closed the door due to a breeze or didnt close the door them self at all. This is an example of misinterpretation of actions brought about by the physical barrier of the door. Barriers like this can often present the risk of a ripple effect; in that the barrier in this situation could damage the recipients’ perception of the source by making the recipient feel outcast or shut out by the inhabitant of the office, which would set up the standings of a bad communicative relationship. Issues in communication can be disturbed when the basic mechanics of the communication method are damaged directly.

The Power Of Words In Influencing Attitudes

The Power Of Words In Influencing Attitudes To recognize how words have the power to create and affect attitudes, behavior, and perception one must first understand their own conscience and belief system. Words have meaning, but no power unless the perceived mental state of an individual gives power to the words spoken that have been heard. In another essay I authored in another class, which is most appropriate for this updated essay on the aspects of communication recognizing how words have the power to create and affect attitudes, behavior, and perception. The conscience is that inner voice that everyone has inside themselves. The voice inside has a set of critical thinking rules that are determined through a persons life experiences. Most people think about what they plan to do before they do it. People also respond to what other people say and do. It is the amount of power given to the words spoken that are perceived in the mental state of an individual that gives the power to the words spoken that have been heard acting o ut a plan that determines success or failure, even in communications. Our morals and values are the driving force behind our beliefs and how much power we give to another individuals words that are heard. If a person believes it is alright to steal to take care of their family, then the way they believe is the way they think resulting in the behaviors produced in that particular lifestyle. Example, lets say that there is a discussion between two people about, is it alright to steal? Our personal ethics that are perceived in how we as a people co-exist and communicate with each other stem from how we believe. This discussion is debated for whatever time frame and the one who thinks it is alright to steal convinces the other it is alright to steal as well. This is where words become powerful and perceptions are distorted. There are people in this world that would freely say things giving their life for another with no limitations on how to give positive feed back using words. There also people that go out of their way to say nice things at all costs knowing that words can hurt an individuals feelings. Then there are conditional communicators that will not say a particular word or words unless there is an exchange of a mutual agreement that has been reached so as not to offend any party involved. Most people believe there must be an exchange of some sort where both parties equally receive as much as that is given. There also are people in this world that would die to just prove a point in what they say they believe in. What defines a person is in their actions and their actions are brought about through choice in how they perceive reality. Is it justifiable to perform an evil act in order to achieve good consequences? This question has been used for centuries. As stated by Ruggiero (2008), humans have the capacity to choose how they respond to events (p. 118). For example, say someone makes a choice with a plan of action, but the plan devised was driven by negative emotions to where someone instigated controversy between individuals like the use of angry words, etc. Then the out come of this plan may have negative consequences that could change the course of a persons decision or lifestyle. This also applies to relationships with friends or family or both.The Boston Tea Party is an historical example of an evil act that changed history with many speculated communications between groups of people. There are several acts from Americas history that brought freedom when groups of people thought an evil act was evil and another thought not. New York city was built on such acts of evil tyranny and blood shed. The price for f reedom is Death. Life is full of choices, but which choice is the right one? People have contemplated this concept of choice for centuries. Negativity is a sad, but a real factor in society which is ever changing as each day passes by. Stealing has gone on for centuries and people have used words to justify their behaviors convincing others to believe the same way as themselves through communication. Survival is the driving force behind this sad fact. Thievery has not discriminated against race, religion or social status. Thievery has even in some circles been classified as an addiction or disease. Kleptomania is just one clinical term for such a behavior. .Kleptomania, the guilt-ridden, impulsive need of a impulsive urge to steal, commonly without any regard for the need or profit of unneeded items.. (Kleptomania, 2004, October, Biotech Business Week, 235). Pathological liars are another example of poor communicators that try to influence other to give power to their fantastic stories. Here is a good example of a person that exaggerates things that are ridiculous. If your employer asked you what time you arrived to work and your shift time started at 7:30 am. and you knew that you were late and said you arrived late because your dog ate up the couch and started at small fire in the living room, with no factual evidence to back it up, that would be a pathological lair. These people just lie, even when there is no good reason to do so not caring to gain anything and fearing nothing to lose, exaggerating the things that are ridiculous. This is due to some type of deeper mental and emotional state of a person which the individual is seeki ng attention. This type of mental illness should not be misconstrued with sociopaths, psychopaths and so on, who lie to gain a reward or benefit. A sociopath is a person who is affected with a disorder of their personality which is marked by antisocial behavior. A psychopath is a person with an antisocial personality disorder that is manifested in aggressive, perverted, criminal, or abnormal behavior without empathy or remorse. (Oxford Dictionary) The voice that all people hear is their conscience. Our conscience is what we humans use prior to making decisions or in what we would say to anyone in this world may it be good or bad. Our environment does play a part in perceiving how we humans think and how we speak. For example, if a child sees mom or dad do wrong and gets away with it then the child will comprehend that it is acceptable to behave as mom or dad. If mom or dad curse all the time then the child will perceive it is alright to say the F word, etc.. There are many other ways to steal from people even if it is not material. Example, say an employee takes a scheduled break every day for 15 minutes. This employee is a great worker, but everyday this guy uses 21 minutes on his break. That is 6 minutes every day that is unauthorized. Then at lunch time he does the same thing. That is another 6 minutes unauthorized. That is 12 minutes a day, 60 minutes per week in a 40 hour work week. This person just stole an hour worth of wages from his boss. Wouldnt you agree to this line of thinking? Whenà ¢Ã¢â€š ¬Ã‚ ¦.not providing adequate adjustment to the environment or situation with a difference in condition, amount, or level, typically with certain limits..However, some kinds of proposed beliefs are weakly affected by a evolved particular attitude, or act in a particular way that can have strong effects on behavior. (Peter J. Richerson, Robert Boyd revised 8 July 1987). As stated above referring to effects on behavior (Peter J. Richerson, Robert Boyd revised 8 July 1987) perception is everything. This is a strong secular view of choices based on how one believes in cultural ethics. When a person is raised in an environment that perceives that destructive harmful behavior is the answer to solving problems the ethical view perceived is misappropriated morals and values. These views that are instilled in early childhood influences conscience decision making adaptive skills that create negative social issues throughout their whole adult life. Perception is tainted by a persons attitude. A persons attitude is the result of their perceptions. Two people with different perceptions look at the same thing and thus think about it differently, and end up with different attitudes. Both think they are right. This same concept applies to communications. Example, Lets line up ten people and tell the first one a phrase by whispering it in their ear. Then tell the first person to repeat the exact phrase whispering to the next person and the next person is to do the same thing and so on. By the time the phrase reaches the tenth person you ask the tenth person to write down exactly what was said. Statistic show that this phrase that was spoken will be distorted in some shape or fashion. The meaning will change too, 9 out of 10 times. The Army is probably the largest and most diverse organization in the country with an ethnic and racial makeup which mostly reflect over half of American society. Each individual brings a set of values and attitudes that have been cultivated over many years. Additionally, these values and attitudes are still being shaped and refined with each new experience. Many types of people have strong memories about recent events in their lives, such as promotion, schooling, a new baby, or a transfer etc.. These events and ones yet to come, serve to shape a persons values and attitude for the future. However, values and attitudes do not automatically change just because someone puts on an uniform or gains a new job. Some values and attitudes, are coupled with a lack of awareness, or insensitivity about others that are different from ourselves which can produce confrontations, anger issues, and even violence. It is imperative all of society working or not, recognize and manage their differences so they do not interfere with someone elses effectiveness or their ability to communicate. Values are attitudes about the worth or importance of people, concepts, or things. Values influence our behavior because we use them to decide between alternatives. Values, attitudes, behaviors and beliefs are cornerstones of who we are and how we do things. They form the basis of how we see ourselves as individuals, how we speak, how we see others, and how we interpret the world in general. Your values will influence your priorities. Strong values are what most people put first, defend most, and want least to sacrifice. Individual values can and will conflict at times. Example: If you incorrectly reported a car accident, do you have the moral courage to correct the original statement given even if you know the authorities will never discover what you said? In this situation, your values on truth and self-interest will collide. What you value the most will guide your actions. In this example, the proper course of action is obvious. There are times, however, when the right course of action is not so clear.

Essay on Shirley Jacksons The Lottery - Message of Social Responsibili

The Message of Social Responsibility in The Lottery      Ã‚  Ã‚   Often, we paint a fairytale view of life for ourselves and our children. Sometimes, an author paints a frightfully realistic picture of life and forces us to reconsider the fairytale. In Shirley Jackson’s story, "The Lottery," a town each year conducts a lottery in which the winner or looser, in this case, is stoned to death by his or her own neighbors. The tradition is supposed to uphold social structure within the town, but in order to comprehend the true meaning of the story you must be able to read between the lines. "The Lottery" is a story about a town that has let its traditions go too far. Also, it is clear that the story contains eye-opening facts that lead me to believe that the author’s intentions were not to write a horror story, but rather cry to all to stop and realize we have problems that we can and should approach, that can make a difference in many people’s lives in our society. The author states that the lottery is conducted every year in the spring. The flowers are blooming and the birds are singing, but this warm town quickly becomes a gloomy, overcast setting for a satanic event. This horrifying ritual ends in bloodshed and death. In our society today, there are large cities which have beautiful parks and people usually keep them clean and pretty th... ...lottery, and that could lead to many more deaths of innocent people. The fact that there are places in the world today that immoral actions occur, means that we, as responsible citizens, are not doing our job. The people of America must wake up and learn to stand up for what they believe in. Works Cited Jackson, Shirley. "The Lottery." The Harper Anthology of Fiction. Ed Sylvan Barnet. New York: HarperCollins, 1986. 862-868 McQuain, Michelle. "Change Only When Affected." Ode to Friendship & Other Essays. Connie Bellamy, Virginia Beach: VWC, 1997. Walden, John. "Critical Essays by John Walden." Electric Library. http://www.elibrary.com/id/230/270/lid, 1996.

Aeneas Fights With Turnus Essays -- Aeneid Virgil Essays

Aeneas Fights With Turnus In the Aeneid, Virgil describes many human qualities, problems and characteristics. Some examples which I wish to illustrate can be found in the end of epic, in the scene of the final duel between Aeneas and Turnus. Virgil also introduces a novel idea in his work. Both sides, the Trojans and the Latins, are portrayed as noble people. Even though Aeneas is fated to win, and he is the hero of the work, the opposing force, Turnus, is not portrayed as evil, but rather like a noble person in a very hard situation. Virgil deals as much with physical and psychological problems Turnus faces, being an honest and noble man, as he does with Aeneas’s problems. By the time the battle begins, Turnus knows that he will lose. His sister, who was given some divine powers by Jupiter earlier, helped him during the battle before the final duel, but then she is called off by Jupiter. Turnus knew even before the battle started that he will lose, because it was fated for Aeneas to receive the land and marry Lavinia. He was urged by King Latinus and Lavinia herself not to fight but as the poet says, â€Å"Words cannot check the violence of Turnus† (Book XII, 62). Who was Turnus’s â€Å"violence†, or anger against? I do not think that it was Aeneas. Turnus was angry at the fate that forced him to give up the woman he loved to some newcomer. He could not accept that. Virgil is showing that anger can drive a person to the most irrational decisions. Turnus went, knowingly, to die because he was angry at fate, which cannot be changed. Aeneas faces a similar problem when he has to leave Dido -- fate is against his desires, but Aeneas, chooses fate’s way, while Turnus chooses his desires. This quality is not only portrayed in the ... ...ght of Pallas’s belt upon his murderer. He decides to avenge him, and punish Turnus for his crimes. Here, justice prevails over mercy, and repentance does not achieve any results. It is difficult to see how in later times Virgil might have been referred to as a Christian before Christ. He clearly here states that Aeneas, who was a very humane hero, kills Turnus to avenge his friend despite the fact that Turnus repented his sins. At the end, justice triumphs over feelings like mercy. Both men, Aeneas and Turnus are shown to be bound by justice. Turnus cannot accept Aeneas’s usurping of his wedding rites, and is prepared to fight and die for it. Aeneas cannot accept the slaughter of his friend, and must avenge him. And even though only one of them is the hero of the epic, both follow a similar path through the work, and both get what they were assigned to by fate.

David Boston :: essays research papers

What's going on in Room 614? There's an overgrown wide receiver in there. "Dude, you're on steroids!" fans yell at him at training camp. A lot of NFL players and coaches think he's on something, but the term they use is yoked up. "Gotta be," says an NFC defensive back. The receiver keeps testing clean (seven times last season), but his peers are still suspicious. They can't prove it, but they think he's on something they don't have a test for yet, maybe human growth hormone (HGH), and one reason is the size of his head. "Look, even his face is growing," the player goes on. "He's bloated. His cheekbones have changed." Guys around the league just don't see how his weight could jump from 209 to 257 in three years. Or how he can have 21-inch biceps, a 34-inch waist and 5.5% body fat. Or how he can run the 40 in 4.3 seconds. Or how the sorry Cardinals could let such a physical specimen walk. Or how 30 other teams could let the Chargers scoop him up as a free agent for only 47 mil. No, there's got to be something going on in that room. Something to keep Arizona from franchising him, something to scare off the rest of the league. "We didn't even have him on our board," says a Redskins exec, whose team needed a receiver this winter and opted to pay Laveranues Coles a $13 million signing bonus. Laveranues Coles? He's half this guy's size and doesn't run any faster. But few trust him. They hear all the stories. How he eats only in his personal trainer's room, Room 614 at the Hilton Carson Civic Plaza in Carson, Calif. How Hall of Famer Joe Greene, an assistant coach on his old team, wonders if he'll live to 30. How he's paying his personal trainer $200K a year. How, even though he's rooming with LaDainian Tomlinson, he's holed up most of the time in Room 614. Holed up and getting heavier every day. "Have you seen that guy? Our D-line coach calls him Robocop," says Chargers defensive end Marcellus Wiley. "If any of us defensive linemen go down, he's going two-way. I mean, 260 pounds, 5% body fat, a 4.3 40? That's 30 sacks. Every day in the cafeteria, I walk past the fried foods and say, 'I am David Boston' That way, I won't eat them.

Human Immunodeficiency Virus Essay

Meet the Client: Jeff Smith Thirty-two-year-old Jeff Smith is admitted from his healthcare provider’s office to the acute care facility. Jeff was diagnosed HIV positive 2 years ago. His history includes fatigue, a productive cough, and weight loss. A tuberculosis (TB) skin test was administered in the healthcare provider’s office. Admission prescriptions include â€Å"isolation precautions for possible tuberculosis.† Admission Procedure The nurse welcomes Jeff to a private room at the end of the hall. According to hospital protocol, the nurse puts on a mask before starting the admission process. Jeff tells the nurse that his partner is downstairs and that he would like his partner to stay in the room with him. 1. How should the nurse respond? A) â€Å"Your healthcare provider wants you to get some rest.† INCORRECT Jeff is requesting an opportunity for psychosocial support, which should be honored by the nurse. B) â€Å"Your partner may stay, but only after we have the results of his tuberculin skin test.† INCORRECT Significant others may stay with appropriate protective equipment. C) â€Å"Your partner may stay, but he needs to wear a mask.† CORRECT Jeff’s partner may stay in the room, but he should wear a mask to help decrease the possibility of contracting the TB organism. D) â€Å"You don’t want to risk infecting your partner with TB, do you?† INCORRECT Jeff’s partner has already been exposed. In addition, this response denies Jeff the support he is requesting. Jeff’s partner, Anthony, arrives. Jeff wants to know why a mask is necessary for people entering his room. 2. What teaching should the nurse implement? A) Explain the use of a private room and mobile high-efficiency particle filters placed in the room. INCORRECT These are necessary precautions against infectious, airborne diseases such as TB. However, providing this information does not answer Jeff’s question. B) Explain that the tuberculosis organism is most often spread through the air. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, they produce infectious droplets that can be breathed in by another person. CORRECT This answer gives Jeff the scientific rationale for wearing a mask. C) Tell Jeff that tuberculosis will not be spread to others, and everything will be okay if the mask is worn. INCORRECT This is false information. Wearing a mask will not prevent the contraction of tuberculosis (TB), but it will reduce the risk of contracting the disease. D) Tell Jeff that masks are required for those persons who do not agree to be vaccinated with BCG vaccine. INCORRECT The BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin) vaccine is not generally recommended for use in the United States. It is only used here for very select persons who meet specific criteria. Isolation The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) asks why Jeff could not be in an empty semiprivate room closer to the nurse’s station so the staff would not have to walk so far to provide care. 3. What information should the nurse provide to the UAP on infection control practices? A) The client needs to be at the end of the hall because he requires privacy. INCORRECT This is not the reason for the location of Jeff’s room. B) The implementation of airborne precautions for possible TB requires a private, negative pressure room assignment. CORRECT According to the Center for Disease Control (CDC), in addition to isolating Jeff by using a private room, engineering controls can help to prevent the spread of TB. Controlling the direction of the airflow can prevent contamination of air in adjacent areas. C) A private room is required to implement contact precautions for possible TB. INCORRECT Airborne precautions, rather than contact precautions, are required to prevent the spread of TB. D) The client needs to be at the end of the hall for confidentiality. INCORRECT Confidentiality is provided for every client, regardless of the client’s room location. The nurse notices the UAP about to enter Jeff’s room to deliver a meal tray without wearing any protective apparel. 4. What information should the nurse provide to the UAP? A) A mask is required for healthcare workers entering the room of someone suspected of having active TB. CORRECT TB is spread by airborne transmission of droplet nuclei. A well fitting, high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask is necessary to filter the mycobacterium tuberculosis bacillus. B) Wearing a mask, gown, and gloves is required for healthcare workers entering Jeff’s room for any reason. INCORRECT The only protective apparel required when entering the room is a HEPA mask. C) The UAP will only be in the room for a brief moment to deliver the tray, so no intervention is needed by the nurse. INCORRECT Since TB is spread by airborne transmission of droplet nuclei, a HEPA mask is necessary for the UAP to wear. The nurse needs to inform the UAP of this and ensure that appropriate PPE is worn in Jeff’s room. D) Non-sterile gloves are necessary to deliver the meal and prevent the spread of TB. INCORRECT Gloves do not prevent the transmission of an airborne organism. Specimen Collection An acid-fast bacilli (AFB) stain is part of the initial admission prescriptions. Early morning sputum specimens will be collected for 3 consecutive days and sent to the lab. 5. Which task(s) may the nurse delegate to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) A) Tell Jeff that the specimen must be collected in the early morning. CORRECT This task may be delegated. B) Provide Jeff with 3 sterile specimen cups at his bedside. CORRECT This task may be delegated. C) Teach the client how to cough to obtain sputum from deep in the bronchi. INCORRECT Teaching is a responsibility of the nurse that cannot be delegated. Jeff needs to be taught to cough deeply, using the diaphragm to produce sputum from the bronchi instead of saliva from the oral cavity. D) Document the time and date that each sputum specimen was collected. CORRECT This task may be safely delegated. However, it is the nurse’s responsibility to ensure that the documentation is completed and sent with the specimen to the lab. E) Assess Jeff’s abilty to expectorate a sputum specimen. INCORRECT This task may not be delegated. Jeff is scheduled for several activities the following morning. 6. Which activity should Jeff perform first upon awakening? A) Eat a nutritionally dense, early morning snack sent from the food services department. INCORRECT While small, nutritionally dense meals and snacks are necessary for clients with HIV and/or TB, another action is of greater priority. B) Obtain the first of 3 sputum specimens for laboratory testing. CORRECT Because secretions collect during the night, Jeff should take the opportunity to cough and expectorate upon awakening before performing other morning activities. C) Take a shower and get ready to go to radiology for a chest X-ray. INCORRECT Another action is of greater priority. D) Weigh to determine if weight loss from the disease is continuing. INCORRECT Although daily weight monitoring may be done, another action is of greater priority. Legal/Ethical Concepts A female staff nurse tells the nursing supervisor that she does not want to be assigned to care for Jeff. She states, â€Å"I have never cared for a client with HIV and do not want to start now. I have babies at home that need me.† 7. The nursing supervisor should base her response on what information about the right of a nurse to refuse to care for clients with HIV? A) The registered nurse has the right and responsibility to protect the health of self and family and may therefore refuse to care for clients with contagious diseases. INCORRECT This answer does not meet the professional guidelines set forth by the ANA Code for Nurses that guide ethical nursing practice. B) The registered nurse may refuse to care for a client in circumstances where risk to the nurse outweighs the nurse’s responsibility to care for a client or if the assignment conflicts with the nurse’s ethical standards. CORRECT According to the ANA Code for Nurses, a nurse may morally refuse to participate in care, but only on the grounds of either client advocacy or moral objection to a specific type of intervention. Exceptions may be made when risk of harm outweighs the nurse’s responsibility to care for a given client. For example, an immunosuppressed nurse may refuse to care for clients with certain infectious processes. The pregnant nurse may refuse to care for the client with HIV who has secondary infections such as toxoplasmosis or cytomegalovirus, both of which can cause severe damage or death to the fetus. C) Refusal to treat or care for a person based on race, gender, or age is discrimination, which the federal government prohibits. INCORRECT The nurse in this case is not refusing to care for the client based on these  parameters. If the nurse did refuse, it would be illegal. D) The required staffing ratio of licensed personnel to client population does not allow for professional nurses to refuse to care for a client. INCORRECT Staffing ratio is a budgeting issue. Nurses in many states may claim â€Å"safe harbor† if they feel staffing is unsafe, but this is not the reason given for refusal in this case. 8.  How should the nursing supervisor respond to the staff nurse who does not want to care for Jeff? A) â€Å"I understand. I will assign you to a different client and give Jeff to one of the other nurses.† INCORRECT This response does not provide an opportunity to assess if something else is needed. B) â€Å"I understand you are concerned, but I am concerned about you losing your job over this.† INCORRECT Not only is addressing possible dismissal of the nurse premature, this response does not provide an opportunity to assess whether something else is needed. C) â€Å"I understand your fears, but do you realize this will cause a hardship on your fellow staff members?† INCORRECT This response does not help develop the nurse as a team member, nor does it provide an opportunity to assess if something else is needed. D) â€Å"I understand you want to protect your children. Please tell me your concerns regarding caring for a client with HIV.† CORRECT This response by the nurse supervisor demonstrates compassion and provides an opportunity to discover if education of the staff nurse is needed. Client Education The nurse checks on Jeff and finds him reading a brochure about TB. 9. Which statement by Jeff indicates that he understands why he is at risk for TB? A) â€Å"I realize my helper T cells are diminished from HIV. Those are the cells needed to fight TB.† CORRECT HIV attacks the CD4 receptors on the helper T cells that help the body fight off diseases such as TB. B) â€Å"I may get tuberculosis because my viral load count is diminished.† INCORRECT An increased HIV viral load indicates disease progression and puts the client  at risk for opportunistic infections. A decreased viral load count is desirable. It is a goal of anti-HIV therapy. C) â€Å"I am at risk for developing TB because I was born with a low number of helper T cells.† INCORRECT This may indicate Jeff is in denial or lacks correct information. The human immunodeficiency virus is acquired rather than genetic in origin. D) â€Å"I realize I am at risk for acquiring TB because I used intravenous drugs in the past.† INCORRECT Jeff could have been exposed to HIV and hepatitis virus from a contaminated needle. However, the mode of transmission of the mycobacterium tuberculosis bacilli is through respiratory secretions, not blood-borne routes. After 3 days, the nurse receives the results from Jeff’s tuberculin skin test that was administered at his healthcare provider’s office. Even though Jeff’s reaction to the tuberculin skin test measures only 5 mm in diameter, the healthcare provider documents a positive test result. A new graduate nurse finds this confusing. She tells her preceptor that she thought a 10 mm induration was the minimum size for a positive reading. 10. How should the nurse-preceptor respond? A) â€Å"This confuses me, too. I think we need to consult with the healthcare provider.† INCORRECT The nurse-preceptor should be able to explain the tuberculin skin test result. B) â€Å"That is not always true. A 5 mm induration is considered positive for TB in a person with HIV.† CORRECT The person with HIV has diminished T cell immunity, which compromises their ability to react to skin tests. Therefore, an induration of 5 mm is considered a positive reaction, rather than the standard of 10 to 15 mm for other groups. C) â€Å"It may be that you are confusing induration with inflammation in skin testing results.† INCORRECT The hardened, raised area of induration at the site of the skin test is measured. Any flat, reddened area of inflammation is not measured. The graduate nurse did not indicate confusion between the two. D) â€Å"Let’s ask the nurse-practitioner who specializes in caring for clients who are HIV  positive.† INCORRECT Although the practitioner is an excellent resource, the nurse-preceptor should be able to explain the tuberculin skin test result. Pharmacotherapeutics/Medication Administration Before breakfast, the nurse brings Jeff the HIV medicines that are due. Jeff inquires about his other medications, stating, â€Å"I take all my HIV pills at once before breakfast. I don’t want to bother with this disease all day long!† 11.  How should the nurse reply? A) â€Å"To be most effective, HIV medications are prescribed on different schedules.† CORRECT Some HIV inhibitors need to be given on an empty stomach and some need to be given with food for best effectiveness. Many need to be taken around the clock, even if sleep is disrupted, to ensure drug efficacy. B) â€Å"All right. I will give the rest to the UAP to bring in as soon as possible.† INCORRECT This is not the correct way for Jeff to take his medication, nor is it within the UAP’s scope of practice to give medications. C) â€Å"We are just trying to provide you with the best nursing care possible on this unit.† INCORRECT That is a defensive reply, which does not contribute to educating Jeff. D) â€Å"We need your cooperation to help fight this disease.† INCORRECT This reply is judgmental and implies that Jeff is uncooperative, which he is not. Jeff responds by agreeing to take his medications as prescribed. He then states, â€Å"However, I don’t know what good they will do. Do you?† 12.  How should the nurse respond? A) â€Å"I honestly do not know, but I would give it a try. What is there to lose?† INCORRECT This response does not educate Jeff about the purpose of the HIV meds. B) â€Å"The main purpose of these medicines is to block the replication of the HIV virus.† CORRECT The purpose of the antiretroviral and inhibitor medicines is to block the replication of the HIV virus and prevent opportunistic diseases. C) â€Å"You should talk to your healthcare provider about your medications.† INCORRECT The nurse should be able to answer Jeff’s question about his medications. D) â€Å"Tell me about the experiences your friends have had with these medicines.† INCORRECT Exploration of how Jeff formed his opinion would be better if left until after the nurse answers Jeff’s question. Jeff’s healthcare provider has also prescribed the antibiotic Rifater. This drug is a combination of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. 13.  What information is important to teach Jeff about the use of Rifater? (Select all that apply.) A) Rifampin stains urine, stool, saliva, sweat, and tears reddish-orange. CORRECT This teaching can help Jeff prepare for this side effect without anxiety. B) Liver function tests should be routinely conducted and monitored. CORRECT The major side effect of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide is drug-induced hepatitis. Therefore, Jeff must be taught the importance of having blood samples drawn to monitor his liver function. C) There is no need to wear sunscreen when exposed to sunlight while taking Rifater. INCORRECT Pyrazinamide may make the skin sensitive to sunlight, and this should be taught to the client. D) Supplemental Vitamin B6 may be prescribed. CORRECT Jeff may be prescribed Vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuritis, a side effect of isoniazid (INH). E) Rifater has been known to cure HIV within a few months of taking it. INCORRECT Rifater is a first-line anti-tubeculin drug Nursing Diagnosis Jeff has been diagnosed with the opportunistic disease TB. He has experienced weight loss and has a CD4 cell count of 240 cells/mm3. The healthcare provider moves Jeff from the HIV asymptomatic stage (CDC HIV Infection Stage 1) to the HIV Infection Stage 3 (AIDS). 14. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for Jeff at this time? A) Risk for new opportunistic infections related to decreased immune function. CORRECT Since Jeff’s immune system is no longer competent, he is at risk for additional opportunistic infections. Immune problems start when the CD4 cell count drops below 500 cells/mm3. Preventing infections is a basic need and is a high priority in the immunocompromised client. B) Social isolation related to worsening of condition. INCORRECT Social isolation should be addressed, but there is a higher priority nursing diagnosis. C) Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to medication side effects. INCORRECT Although this is frequently a side effect of taking HIV and TB medications, there is a higher priority nursing diagnosis. D) Fatigue related to altered body chemistry. INCORRECT Although the client initially complained of fatigue, there is a nursing diagnosis with a higher priority. Infection Control One of the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) says, â€Å"Now that Jeff’s condition has worsened and he has been moved to the HIV Symptomatic stage, shouldn’t added precautions be posted on Jeff’s door to protect staff members?† 15. What information should the nurse give the UAP? A) Following standard precautions will minimize the exposure to blood and body fluids. CORRECT Standard precautions are designed to prevent contact with blood or body fluids, which are the mode of transmission for HIV, and are used no matter what the stage classification of the disease. B) Reverse isolation procedures should be implemented to protect the staff. INCORRECT Reverse isolation protects the immune-compromised client, not the staff. C) Respiratory precautions are all that are needed, and those are already posted on the door. INCORRECT This does not address the UAP’s concerns about prevention of HIV transmission from client to staff. D) Staff members caring for Jeff should begin prophylaxis medications. INCORRECT Unless HIV exposure occurs, staff should not begin the postexposure prophylacis regimen. The UAP has been assigned to help Jeff bathe. As the UAP prepares to enter Jeff’s room, the nurse observes her putting on a gown, gloves, mask, and goggles. 16. What should the nurse say to the UAP? A) â€Å"I see you are putting on a gown, gloves, mask, and goggles to go into the client’s room. Help me understand this choice.† CORRECT This type of open-ended statement seeks clarification and invites the UAP into a dialog where teaching can take place. The nurse can then educate the UAP concerning the proper use of equipment. Standard precautions (for HIV) require that gloves be worn, and respiratory precautions (for TB) require that a mask be worn. Goggles and a gown are not necessary. B) â€Å"Don’t you know all that equipment is not necessary?† INCORRECT This statement is overly aggressive and may seem demeaning to the UAP. C) â€Å"Wearing all that equipment is a waste of hospital supplies.† INCORRECT While it is important to ensure effective use of resources, this statement is critical and negative and may cause the UAP to become defensive. D) â€Å"Wearing all that equipment may frighten Jeff.† INCORRECT While the excessive equipment may frighten Jeff, there is a better response. Oral Candidiasis The nurse notices that Jeff has left most of his dinner untouched. The nurse offers to order something different for Jeff, but he replies that his mouth is sore and he just doesn’t feel like eating. 17. Which assessment finding by the nurse would be indicative of oral candidiasis, a common secondary infection in persons with compromised immune systems? A) Blisters on the tongue or oral mucosa. INCORRECT This is a sign of herpes simplex type virus 1 (HSV-1) infection. B) Inflammation of the gums. INCORRECT This is a symptom of gingivitis. C) Painless white lesions on the lateral surface of the tongue. INCORRECT This is a description of leukoplakia. D) White-yellow patches on the tongue or oral mucosa. CORRECT This sign is indicative of a Candida albicans infection. It is a common finding in people with HIV, and it frequently occurs with a falling CD4 cell count. The nurse notifies the healthcare provider, who prescribes nystatin (Mycostatin) 6 ml PO 4 times per day. 18. What instruction should the nurse give Jeff about the use of liquid Mycostatin? A) Place all of the suspension in the mouth, then swish and swallow immediately. INCORRECT This is not the proper way to take liquid Mycostatin. B) Sip the suspension over 5 minutes, swishing and swallowing after each sip. INCORRECT This is not the proper way to take liquid Mycostatin. C) Place the suspension in the mouth, then swish for several minutes before swallowing. CORRECT This â€Å"swish and swallow† technique is the proper way to take liquid Mycostatin. Providers also recommend gargling, as well as swishing, prior to swallowing. D) Use the applicator to paint the medication on the infected sites and swallow the remaining dose. INCORRECT This describes the recommended procedure for young children or infants taking Mycostatin. Nutritional Interventions Jeff Smith is 5 feet, 11 inches tall. He has a large frame and weighs 152 pounds. His current BMI (body mass index) is 17.4. Jeff says he realizes he should eat, but he does not have the energy or the appetite, even when he has no oral pain. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of, â€Å"Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements.† 19.  To achieve the goal of improving Jeff’s nutrition, which nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A) Consult with Jeff to assess his food preferences. CORRECT Determining Jeff’s food preferences is a good first step. It is essential that Jeff be an active participant in his care so he has some control. If a favorite food is not on the menu, it can be requested. B) Request a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). INCORRECT While this may eventually be needed, it is not the best intervention at this point. C) Inform Jeff that adequate nutrition is essential. INCORRECT Jeff has already indicated he understands the need to eat. D) Instruct Jeff to focus on breakfast, the most important meal of the day. INCORRECT It is not necessary to focus on breakfast. Adequate nutrition can be achieved from meals eaten throughout the day. 20.  Since Jeff now has thrush, in addition to fatigue and anorexia, which food best contributes to improving Jeff’s nutrition? A) Broiled steak. INCORRECT Although steak is a good source of protein, it requires energy to chew, and it may be irritating to Jeff’s mouth. B) Milk shake. CORRECT A milk shake is a nutrient-dense food. It provides needed calories, calcium, and protein. Jeff can drink the nutritious snack without using the energy it would take to eat a full meal. Jeff may find the cool liquid is soothing to his sore mouth. C) Tomato soup. INCORRECT Although liquid soup is not difficult to eat, (note, the warmth could be soothing), the acidity of the tomato soup may be irritating to Jeff’s mouth. D) Lettuce salad with raw vegetables. INCORRECT Although a salad with raw vegetables is a good source of vitamins, it  requires energy to chew, and it may be irritating to Jeff’s mouth. A Complication Occurs Jeff develops severe diarrhea with occasional incontinence that could be caused by an opportunistic gastrointestinal infection or by one of his medications. While stool cultures are pending, other interventions can be initiated. 21.  Which task(s) should be delegated to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) A) Weigh Jeff each morning before breakfast. CORRECT Weights can be obtained by the UAP. B) Measure the urine output. CORRECT Measurement of the urine output can be delegated to the UAP, then reported to the RN. C) Count and record the number of watery stools. CORRECT The UAP can legally count and record the number of watery stools. However, it is the nurse’s responsibility to be aware of the client’s condition and promptly report any significant changes to the healthcare provider. D) Evaluate the rate and quality of Jeff’s pulse. INCORRECT The nurse must evaluate the quality and rate of Jeff’s pulse because this requires judgment and expertise beyond the scope of practice of unlicensed personnel. E) Check Jeff’s skin turgor to determine if he is dehydrated. INCORRECT The nurse conducts physical exam procedures, including assessing for alterations in skin turgor, to determine hydration status. This expertise is not within the scope of practice for the UAP. When performing Jeff’s morning physical assessment, the nurse discovers that he has a weak, rapid pulse. He also has decreased skin turgor and dry, sticky, oral mucous membranes. His weight is 2 pounds less than it was yesterday morning. 22.  What is the priority nursing diagnosis? A) Fatigue. INCORRECT Fatigue may be present with diarrhea, but it is not the priority nursing diagnosis. B) Disturbed sleep pattern. INCORRECT While diarrhea may certainly disrupt sleep, this is not the priority diagnosis. C) Deficit Fluid Volume. CORRECT A weak, rapid pulse; decreased skin turgor; dry, sticky, oral mucous membranes; and weight loss are signs of dehydration. D) Situational low self-esteem. INCORRECT Incontinence of stool may lead to low self-esteem, but this is not the priority diagnosis. 23.  Which action should the nurse take first? A) Hold Jeff’s breakfast tray to provide bowel rest. INCORRECT While clear liquids or another diet that promotes bowel rest may be prescribed, another action should be performed first. B) Perform oral care and moisten mucous membranes. INCORRECT Another action should be performed first. C) Take Jeff’s blood pressure to assess for postural hypotension. CORRECT Postural hypotension can result from dehydration. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to obtain this vital information because it directly impacts Jeff’s safety. D) Notify the healthcare provider of Jeff’s weak, rapid pulse. INCORRECT Another action should be performed before notifying the healthcare provider. 24.  The health care provider is notified of Jeff’s physical exam findings indicating possible dehydration and vital signs, including a blood pressure of 100/50. It is determined that Jeff could use a bolus of IV fluids. The HCP prescribes 1000 cc of normal saline to run over 6 hours. The drop factor tubing set is 15 drops/ml. How many drops/minute will the IV run? (Enter the  numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the whole number.) 42  CORRECT 1000/360 X 15 = 41.66 = 42 gtts/minute Jeff’s stool cultures are negative. After treatment with fluids and diet modification, his diarrhea resolves in 24 hours. Jeff’s fluid balance is restored and his oral candidiasis is resolving. Discharge Instructions Before Jeff is discharged home, it is important that he understands how to prevent the spread of HIV. When discussing infection control practices with the nurse, Jeff says, â€Å"I have heard that condoms don’t always prevent HIV.† 25.  How should the nurse respond? A) â€Å"If used correctly and consistently, latex condoms are highly effective in preventing the transmission of HIV.† CORRECT Jeff’s misinformation and misunderstanding is a common myth regarding the effectiveness of latex condoms. Studies prove that condoms work. B) â€Å"I know you would feel terrible if you passed HIV to someone because you did not use a condom.† INCORRECT Not only is this statement judgmental, the nurse also presumes to know how Jeff will feel. C) â€Å"I will have an AIDS educator discuss condom use with you.† INCORRECT The nurse has the knowledge to respond to Jeff’s question. D) â€Å"What is your source of information about condom failure?† INCORRECT While it may be helpful to know where Jeff got his information, this response does not answer Jeff’s question. Jeff assures the nurse that he will use a condom with each sexual encounter. He also expresses concern that he may become dehydrated again. 26.  What resource can be provided for Jeff in the event this complication occurs? A) Meals on Wheels. INCORRECT Meals on Wheels is a national nonprofit organization that delivers food to the elderly, the disabled, and the homebound. Jeff would not be a candidate to receive help from Meals on Wheels. B) HIV/AIDS support group. INCORRECT Although an HIV/AIDS support group can be a valuable resource, it cannot prevent Jeff from getting diarrhea or becoming dehydrated. C) Access to the services of a registered dietitian. CORRECT It is essential that the nurse arrange a consult for Jeff with a registered dietitian before he is discharged home. The dietitian will give Jeff specific information on suggested foods and liquids to include in his diet to help prevent dehydration if diarrhea occurs at home. The clinical dietitian will provide Jeff with resources, such as a phone number, that will give him access to the dietitian on an outpatient basis. Breast cancer Evolve Case Study Breast Cancer – Patient: Sandra Williams 1) â€Å"Select whatever day you can best remember to perform BSE consistently every month.† 2) â€Å"When lying down, your arm should be positioned over your head.† 3) The combination of yearly CBE and monthly BSE is the best approach for early detection.† 4) Teach Barb that even women with no identified risk factors are at risk 5) â€Å"You may experience some discomfort, but only for a few minutes.† 6) â€Å"It’s hard to believe that this is happening, isn’t it?† 7) â€Å"Are you saying that you do not want to have surgery?† 8) Anticipatory grieving 9) â€Å"To ensure your safety, I need to notify the surgeon of the snack you ate.† 10) Nonmaleficence 11) Notify the surgeon that further explanation of the procedure is necessary 12) Observe the Jackson-Pratt drainage device, Administer a PRN dose of prescribed analgesic, Monitor vital signs and pulse oximetry 13) Encourage Sandra to continue performing these exercises 14) Advise the UAP to immediately stop and obtain a larger cuff so the BP reading can be taken in the leg 15) Both the GN and UAP are at fault for the incorrect action of the UAP. 16) Ask Sandra to clarify how she learned this information so  that a plan for further teaching can be developed 17) Blood clots 18) â€Å"The medication decreases estrogen levels, which is what also causes the symptoms of menopause 19) Diarrhea, Alopecia 20) Label the two lumens as non-functional, and use one of the remaining lumens 21) Oral temperature of 99.5 ° F 22) Altered tissue perfusion 23) Apply a sequential compression device, Elevate the affected arm. 24) Fifteen minutes prior to administration of the next dose of the drug. 25) 63 26) Candida superinfection 27) A 65-year-old woman, who is a retired teacher and who never married or had children. 28) Younger sister 29) Unusual skin texture. 30) Hard, irregular, and does not move freely